anonymous
2014-06-08 20:00:11 UTC
If the derivative of f(x) is 0 at a specific point can we still say that the function is differentiable at that point just that no differentiation is occurring?
But if no change is occurring in one variable with respect to another, doesn't that mean it's non-differentiable?
This seems paradoxical because the slope is defined as 0 but there is no change occurring.
Any input here would be great :)