Mackenzie Mitchell
2013-03-08 16:00:06 UTC
The problem is V= π r^2 h, and I'm supposed to be solving for h. I've followed SADMEP and gotten to the point where I have V over π = r^2 h. With V over π being a fraction, the next step I should take would be to divide r^2 h by r^2, right? But that would make the equation to the right of the = sign into a fraction with a fraction inside of it. Can you even HAVE a fraction inside of a fraction?
Assuming that I did the part above wrong, then I would square root r^2 h, I think. But even if I did that, I would still have to put a fraction inside of a fraction when I divide to isolate the h variable. I've been running in circles on this problem for almost a half hour now, and any help would be greatly appreciated.