anonymous
2011-12-06 11:12:04 UTC
The original question:
Determine whether the series converges (infinite series, from 1 to infinity)
(k+1)! / (k+1)^k
I know this can be rewritten as an infinite series from 0 to infinity of
k! / k^k
After that, I have no idea how to formally prove that this series converges. I know it of course it does, I just don't know how to prove it.
Help? =) Thanks!