Question:
1/infinity = ?
anonymous
2015-09-14 23:44:40 UTC
1/infinity = ?
126 answers:
Ryan
2015-09-15 22:35:33 UTC
1/infinity = 0
Jack
2015-09-15 22:56:50 UTC
as 1/0=infinity so 1/infinity = 0
Martel
2015-09-15 16:54:34 UTC
Infinity
?
2015-09-15 22:43:24 UTC
1/infinity = 0 simple
Hésed
2015-09-16 04:25:54 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0
?
2015-09-15 18:52:41 UTC
First of all you should remember that infinity is not a number, it is just a concept.

But when we solve problems we come across algebraic calculations involving infinity

so, for practical purposes we take 1/infinity as 0
Travon
2015-09-16 05:05:42 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0 Infinity isn't a number
Martin
2015-09-15 23:39:39 UTC
1/infinity = zero because 1/0(zero)= Infinity
?
2015-09-15 23:53:07 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0.
?
2015-09-18 15:40:09 UTC
1 divided by infinity equals 1 out of infinity.
arup
2015-09-16 02:31:08 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0. You can think of infinity as a number getting increasingly bigger. Say you have 1/100=.01, and then 1/100000= .00001, and then 1/10000000000=.0000000001

As you can see, the greater the value of the denominator, the lower the answer, so 1/infinity represents a hugely massive number, so it equals 0
?
2015-09-18 21:50:39 UTC
1/infinity is not defined. But As x->infinity, 1/x=0.
?
2015-09-15 21:32:45 UTC
The mathematically correct answer is NOT 0. Infinity isn't a number so 1/∞ doesn't make sense in the traditional (read pre-Isaac Newton ) sense of numbers. In order to understand things like 1/∞, the idea of limits were invented (in the course of inventing calculus) The limit of 1/x as x approaches ∞ is 0. You will learn this if you ever take a calculus course.
Ron
2015-09-17 00:12:22 UTC
Answer is zero, because...

Let's say you're calculation 1/10, its .1

and 1/100 is .01

and 1/1000 is .001

and 1/10000 is .0001

and so on.

As the denominator increases, the fraction becomes even tinier. At some point for 1/infinity, might as well call it 0 cuz the number is just too small.
?
2015-09-19 07:40:36 UTC
Infinity is not a number, it's a concept. So trying to divide 1 by infinity is like trying to divide 1 by pencil sharpener or pair of earphones - they're not even in the same category really.
?
2015-09-18 11:37:45 UTC
1
Dean
2015-09-19 05:53:20 UTC
If 1/infinity = 0, then 1 = 0 * infinity.

If 1/infinity = "any number", then "any number" = 0 * infinity.



Your question is mathematically incorrect.



Correctly write so:



lim 1/n = 0

n=>infinity



(look in the Wikipedia

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Limit_of_a_function)
?
2015-09-15 21:03:33 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0. You can think of infinity as a number getting increasingly bigger. Say you have 1/100=.01, and then 1/100000= .00001, and then 1/10000000000=.0000000001

As you can see, the greater the value of the denominator, the lower the answer, so 1/infinity represents a hugely massive number, so it equals 0
spot a
2015-09-19 01:48:41 UTC
1/ (almost infinity) = almost 0

so by logic 1 / infinity is 0

They say infinity is undefined but

1 / 99,999,999,999,999,999,999,999,999 = 0.00000000000000000000000001

add another 1,000 9s and another 1,000 zeroes after the decimal point.

Is it approaching infinitely small? Yes

Is it approaching 0? yes
Tyler
2015-09-18 16:15:52 UTC
Infinity is a concept not a number. As a result 1/infinity is undefined



If we were to take the limit of 1/x as x-> infinity we would get DNE (does not exist) it forever approaches zero but never reaches it.
Nick N. Ame
2015-09-17 12:42:42 UTC
1/infinity if not 0.

Example; suppose you had a pole an inch in diameter and a mile long. If you sliced this pole an infinite number of time along its length you would NOT get a stack of disks 1 inch across and ZERO thickness - that is a stack of two dimensional disks.



You can't turn a THREE dimensional object into a TWO dimensional object by slicing it really really really thinly. It will always have a thickness, even an infinitesimally small one, but it will always have a thickness.
Art G
2015-09-20 23:02:08 UTC
1/∞ = 0
?
2015-09-15 17:51:09 UTC
0. Infinity fits into 0 0 times.
Aditya
2015-09-17 11:43:12 UTC
1/(infinity) is an indeterminable value but using limits, it has been seen that for very large values of x (say 10^50), the expression 1/x is very, very, very small (10^-50) and very close to 0. Hence, any real number divided by infinity can be considered as 0.
Raymond
2015-09-17 10:52:31 UTC
Since "infinity" is not a well-defined value, the answer would, itself, be undefined.



However, you can use "Limits" to find a valid numerical answer, and that answer is zero.



Limit (as x approaches infinity) of (1/x)



As x gets bigger and bigger, the value of the fraction 1/x gets closer and closer to zero.



Will it stop before hitting zero? (This being a valid test to find out if the answer is zero or not)

The answer is no. It will not stop at any finite number before zero.



You can take ANY non-zero value, no matter how small, and show that the fraction 1/x CAN go lower, just by making x big enough.



Therefore, the "limit" of that value is zero.



The value itself is undefined, because infinity is undefined. But if you are stuck with that in a real-life problem, then you can use zero (the limit allows you to do that).
anonymous
2015-09-18 06:10:10 UTC
Infinity is a concept not a defined mathematical number so that the question is not logical.



If someone say that 1/Infinity=0 then it means if we give 1 apple to infinite people then every one will get 0 apples! Which is illogical. And If we add infinite zeros then it results in 0 which is against the laws of division so that a defined mathematical number can never be added, subtracted,multiplied or divided by "infinity"
Nick
2015-09-18 08:28:55 UTC
Limit of 1/x as x -> infinity is 0.
Jawad Shafiq
2015-09-19 04:14:33 UTC
Infinity is not a number, it is an idea and 1/ infinity = 0. Here in mathematics, we consider as zero.
a_math_guy
2015-09-17 14:25:43 UTC
The answers here are proof that should read books, rather than the internet. If 1/inf = 0, then, clearing denominators, 1 = inf *0. Certainly, 2*0 =0 so you substitute for 0 in 1 = inf * 0 to get 1 = inf * (2*0). Then you factor out the two (associative and commutative properties), to get 1 = 2*(inf * 0). We have already assume that 1 = inf*0 which we then substitute in and get 1 = 2*(1). Congratulations. You have just crashed all arithmetic. Ever.
anonymous
2015-09-18 08:15:13 UTC
0+
?
2015-09-15 15:21:58 UTC
That would depend on whether you are using the theoretical value of infinity or infinity as defined by a system.

In the first case the answer is approaching 0 but not zero, in the second case you can have a finite answer but it depends on the constraints of the system.
Comfy_Chairs
2015-09-17 05:42:15 UTC
Mathematically, it is said that:

1/0 = ∞

and

1/∞ = 0
Clive G
2015-09-18 15:00:28 UTC
If we say that x approaches infinity then 1/x = 0
Stephen Donovan
2015-09-15 08:10:01 UTC
Technically, as infinity is not a real number (rather, it's a hyperreal number), you can't actually take 1/infinity. But, if you mean the LIMIT of 1/x as x APPROACHES infinity, then it's zero, as you could see by the tail behavior of 1/x to the right, getting closer and closer to the x-axis. Or, you could do it numerically, as some of the other answers have, and you still get zero.
Sofia
2015-09-15 16:42:12 UTC
There isn't an answer; infinity is a concept not a number, but if there was a finite answer then it would be close to 0.
?
2015-09-16 02:18:19 UTC
"It is known that there are an infinite number of worlds, simply because there is an infinite amount of space for them to be in. However, not every one of them is inhabited. Therefore, there must be a finite number of inhabited worlds. Any finite number divided by infinity is as near to nothing as makes no odds, so the average population of all the planets in the Universe can be said to be zero. From this it follows that the population of the whole Universe is also zero, and that any people you may meet from time to time are merely the products of a deranged imagination.”

― Douglas Adams, The Restaurant at the End of the Universe
Elizabeth
2015-09-16 13:24:57 UTC
1/infinity = 0

infinity isn't a number so it has to be 0 because its like saying apple + b. That wouldn't equal anything because apple isn't a number or is infinity
turtle
2015-09-17 11:11:17 UTC
just think of it as 1/x and that x--> infinity (x reaches infinity) so the bigger values you put in for x the smaller 1/x gets, so it approaches 0, meaning that 1/infinity is 0 (called the limit value)
?
2015-09-17 07:32:02 UTC
1/infinity is equal to 0 Infinity isn't a number
?
2015-09-18 15:22:37 UTC
You can't put infinity into a sum. Infinity is an idea, not a number. It is the idea that numbers go on for ever. So its basically saying "1/numbers go on for ever" it doesn't make sense.
roderick_young
2015-09-16 07:42:12 UTC
I believe that is represented by the number epsilon, vanishingly small, but not quite zero. If this is a real world problem, 1/(large) = 0 for practical calculations, and infinity is considered large.
Josh
2015-09-17 00:39:44 UTC
It comes to be zero. 1 divided by a very large number will have an answer that approaches to zero.



As, 1/0=infinity.



So, 1/infinity =1/1/o

By Golden Rule of Fractions:

i.e,

a/b divide by c/d= ad/bc

This implies,

1/infinity =1 divide by 1/o=1*0/1=0
Heaven
2015-09-17 07:21:40 UTC
I am only 16, but wouldn't it be infinity? I've learned all my life that "anything devided by one is itself". So like, 1/6 is 6.. I don't know for sure, though! A lot of people are saying 0 which confuses me, but oh well! You learn somethin. New every day, I guess.
denis
2015-09-16 03:17:58 UTC
the LIMIT as "n" approaches infinity is zero; i.e.:



lim (n→∞) 1/n = 0



you cannot simply say 1/∞ = 0 because infinity is not a number. Such as you cannot say



1/(y-axis) = ∞ but should rather say;



the limit as n approaches the y-axis from the right of 1/n is ∞)



lim (n→y-axis +) 1/n = +∞
Cielo
2015-09-16 06:58:48 UTC
Infinity. Infinity is a concept, not a number; therefore, it cannot be calculated in the context of a number.
?
2015-09-17 04:35:24 UTC
0
?
2015-09-17 09:35:04 UTC
1/infinity means you're dividing 1 by an extremely huge number. That would then mean that the answer is veryyy small, thus you could say that it's 0.
anonymous
2015-09-15 11:18:46 UTC
One divided by a really large number such as infinity is zero. You can think of this numerically by thinking of it like this: 1/10 = 0.1, 1/100 = 0.01, 1/1000 = 0.001 and so on. The result will keep getting smaller or will be approaching zero.
kritty karna
2015-09-22 12:10:22 UTC
1/infinity

= 1/{1/0}

=1* (0/1)

=(1*0)/1

=0/1=0
JOSEPH
2015-09-17 05:30:16 UTC
1/infinity=0

This is by the fact that 1/0=infinity, then we inculcate the Golden Fraction theory(=1/1/0=0).
Michael
2015-09-18 15:05:49 UTC
It depends on who you ask. It's a philosophical question. Some say 0, some say nevative infinity, some say the smaest possible number.
yankeesfan12
2015-09-16 19:27:34 UTC
In terms of calculus, the limit as x approacesh infiniy in the equation f(x) = 1/x is zero. Although it can never truly be zero, it mine as well be because once x gets really high, that is to say it apporaches infinity, 1/x will be equal to 0.0000000000000000000000052 etc. which is essentialy zero
dad
2015-09-17 20:26:11 UTC
1 / very large number = very small number

for example

1/ 1000000 = .000001

so we say

1/ infinity = 0

where we understand it is in the limit
?
2015-09-15 10:52:30 UTC
Infinity
zia uddin
2015-09-17 00:43:00 UTC
It has no direct proof but a concept

1/ infinity = zero
Norebal
2015-09-16 11:26:33 UTC
It was already mentioned that infinity is not a number. Therefore in arithmetic and algebra the answer would be: UNDEFINED.



In calculus, in a section involving " limits " the idea of " approaching " is introduces. For example:



lim 2x = ?...... The question is : " What is the limit of f (x) = 2x as x approaches 5 ?.

x -> 5



In plane language: " When x approaches the value 5, what value does 2x approaching ( if any ) ?

If f(x) = 2x approaches a unique number as x approaches 5, that number is the limit. In this case ( a very basic example ) when x takes the values :



......................... x ........... f(x)

......................... 4 ........... 8



........................ 4.5 .......... 9



........................ 4.75 .........9.5



.........................4.9 .......... 9.8

........................ 4.99......... 9.99

........................ 4.99999.... 9.99998



........................ 5.000001...10.000002

........................ 5.00001.... 10.00002

........................ 5.0001 ..... 10.0002



We x approaches 5 from both sides below and above, 2x looks more and more like 10. Note that x is never equal to 5. X can approach 5 for ever.

We then say : When x approaches 5; the function f (x) = 2x approaches 10



Now your question:



lim 1/ x = ?..... What is the limit of f (x) = 1/x as x approaches oo ( Gets larger and larger forever )

.. x-> oo



We know that if the numerator of a fraction is constant and the denominator of the same fraction is getting larger, the value of the fraction is getting smaller:

For example: 1/ 10 > 1/100 > 1/ 1000, etc.



Therefore: if the numerator of a fraction is constant and equal to 1 and the denominator is getting larger and larger for ever, the value of the fraction is getting is getting smaller and smaller forever. That is is" getting closer and closer to cero (looking more and more like cero) " It is never equal to cero.



Note : Of course calculus has its own tools, that make the proccess shorter.
Suryansh
2015-09-17 00:01:51 UTC
its 0
RockIt
2015-09-15 04:24:01 UTC
a divided by (plus or minus) infinity = 0 for all a.



The denominator is a limiting process that approaches infinity



Infinity is not a number.
Asik
2015-09-20 10:59:38 UTC
1/infinity equals Zero ...
Gary B
2015-09-18 10:18:50 UTC
Technically, this is termed "Not A Number (NAN)".



If you try to do this on a computer, it should produce a message "NAN ERROR", but a properly trained programmer will "trap" that error and give you a more "English-like" error, such as "Function cannot be performed" or "results undefined".



But there is a better reason than this.



INFINITY ITSELF IS NOT A NUMBER!

There is no Real Number that we can say "is" (or "equals") infinity, because infinity is an IDEA, NOT a real number. -- NAN
Cody
2015-09-16 05:29:24 UTC
1/infinity isn't equal to 0. It gets closer and closer to 0 and that's it. Everyone above is wrong.
Paul
2015-09-15 04:31:16 UTC
1/infinity is undefined but the limit of 1/x as x approaches infinity is zero.
Thomas
2015-09-15 07:29:51 UTC
Approaching 0
?
2015-09-18 01:24:34 UTC
1/infinity = 0(Zero)
?
2015-09-16 16:46:36 UTC
1/infinity is always considered to be equal to 0.
Earl
2015-09-15 18:08:06 UTC
You cannot divide 1 by ∞ such that: 1/∞ = NAN



The reason is because ∞ is NOT a number!



If ∞ is a number then ∞ - 1 is also a number and ∞ -1 = ∞ so therefore you have a contradiction such that: 1-1=1 by that logic.
Sumit
2015-09-18 01:42:43 UTC
1/infinity is not defined
Quintin
2015-09-15 10:20:32 UTC
1/infinity=0 or at least approaching 0. infinity really is a concept not actually a number
Steve B
2015-09-17 20:29:21 UTC
1/infinity approaches zero



so 1/10 = .1

1/1.000.000 = .0000001



as the number gets larger, you move closer to zero.
chinna
2015-09-16 06:56:26 UTC
infinity
H
2015-09-15 16:39:02 UTC
1/1=1

1/2=0.5

1/4=0.25

1/5=0.20

1/10=0.10

1/20=0.05

1/25=0.04

1/50=0.02

1/100=0.01



As you keep going, you'll notice that it's getting closer to 0. So, 0 should be your answer.
?
2015-09-17 20:01:13 UTC
Simple 0
David N
2015-09-16 10:57:39 UTC
1/infinity = ~0



The problem with coming up with an exact answer of zero is that infinity can not be reached.

The best we can say is that: 1/infinity APPROXIMATES or APPROACHES zero.



In order for the equation: a/b = c

to be mathematically legitimate; a, b, and c must be actual numbers.
?
2015-09-15 09:07:55 UTC
1/infinity = 0, am I right?
SHREYAS
2015-09-18 02:15:46 UTC
undefine - How can u divide a piece of bread into infinite pieces ? Answer is undefine - Why each grain can be further divided into further granularity. We can talk only about the granularity, which we can see either from microscope or naked eyes. But, what about the size, which we can't see from microscope. Thus, we can divide anything into infinite things and the result is undefined. This cannot be calculated at all.
Jahed
2015-09-15 16:03:02 UTC
we know 1/0=infinity

so, 1/infinity=0
?
2015-09-17 13:45:16 UTC
imagine deviding 1 on a huge number, it will get closer to 0 ; so 0 is the limit of 1/oo
Swinger
2015-09-17 20:24:55 UTC
infinity
Sara
2015-09-16 13:21:05 UTC
equals 0 and it may also equal infinity but we know its closer to 0 so we say 0
?
2015-09-15 22:24:14 UTC
Zero
cyclechicknc
2015-09-15 13:52:46 UTC
approximately 0
AJ
2015-09-19 02:48:42 UTC
it's equal to 0 because it would be so so so small that you would be almost the same, if not the same as zero. It would be something like zero, comma, a zillion zeros and then 1.
Hammed Sanusi
2015-09-15 09:06:58 UTC
1/infinity = 0



Cross multiply



0(infinity) 1



∴ 1/infinity = 0
?
2015-09-16 03:37:48 UTC
No real number divides infinity so the correct answer is "nothing."
sepia
2015-09-15 08:20:40 UTC
1/∞

= 0
?
2015-09-16 12:01:16 UTC
1000
Hugh
2015-09-17 01:41:12 UTC
1/0 = infinity, therefore by using the transitive property and substituting, we get... 0 (zero)
Abir
2015-09-16 09:23:28 UTC
Zero
erena44
2015-09-15 07:33:10 UTC
approaching 0
Gabe
2015-09-15 14:28:56 UTC
well, divide anything by 0 you get infinity, so divide by infinity,,,,, you get zero???
?
2015-09-17 21:14:05 UTC
1 Infiniti g35 sedan, that smokes your mustang
shivay
2015-09-17 01:45:12 UTC
Zero
Chelsea Susanto
2015-09-15 06:12:12 UTC
0. totally 0.
Tom S
2015-09-18 18:52:19 UTC
= whatever you want it to be, infinity = undefined.



http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/260876/what-exactly-is-infinity
James
2015-09-17 02:22:18 UTC
Maths
Tony
2015-09-15 23:26:59 UTC
ans is 0
?
2015-09-16 13:52:13 UTC
0.
?
2015-09-19 03:34:48 UTC
1/ imaginary big number = zero
?
2015-09-16 14:52:54 UTC
Zero. Inffinity isn't even a number :)
anonymous
2015-09-17 18:47:22 UTC
Darude - Sandstorm
anonymous
2015-09-17 14:37:11 UTC
square root of 2
zeitraveller
2015-09-15 05:48:04 UTC
Infinity has a beginning but no end!
?
2015-09-15 21:28:18 UTC
Its ZERO (0)
anonymous
2015-09-15 18:01:36 UTC
Infinitsemial, or one infintyth. It is infintly small, the opposite of ininity.
?
2015-09-15 00:33:35 UTC
0.
anonymous
2015-09-16 05:07:57 UTC
It equals zero ?
anonymous
2015-09-17 16:26:21 UTC
difficult to answer, what is 1/truck?
new_bumble_bee
2015-09-15 05:21:40 UTC
Dumbfounded
?
2015-09-18 08:13:46 UTC
i'm getting a headache
?
2015-09-30 06:23:54 UTC
its clearly ZERO (0)
?
2015-09-16 05:22:06 UTC
don't come on yahoo answers to get your homework done.
anonymous
2015-09-16 10:40:17 UTC
yes
?
2015-09-18 13:37:17 UTC
You should refuse that calculation
Angus
2015-09-15 16:44:32 UTC
deez nutz
anonymous
2015-09-19 12:55:51 UTC
the proper way to express it, is as a limit.
?
2015-09-17 23:48:50 UTC
zero
anonymous
2015-09-19 12:12:03 UTC
Answer can not be defined.
?
2015-09-17 11:26:50 UTC
o
pratul
2015-09-18 04:33:06 UTC
error in answer
Joke
2015-09-15 15:09:55 UTC
ya
stephen
2015-09-16 14:37:41 UTC
solution solution solution(angkorwat temple)

www.angkorwat-temple.hpage.asia
That Thang
2015-09-21 18:02:48 UTC
undefined
ff
2015-09-15 20:22:42 UTC
lim->0
?
2015-09-16 02:36:29 UTC
zero!
anonymous
2015-09-15 00:16:54 UTC
up to infinite
?
2015-09-16 11:58:49 UTC
?


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