2008-12-30 18:44:23 UTC
In the paragraph, Biggs is demonstrating a difficulty that arises because each equivalence class can have many names. He's showing how if [x]_m and [x']_m denote the same class, and [y]_m and [y']_m denote the same class, then [x]_m ⊕ [y]_m and [x']_m ⊕ [y']_m denote the same class.
He starts his proof by saying that x ≡ x' (mod m) and y ≡ y' (mod m) is given, I think because they are the same equivalence class. Then he says he will use in his proof theorem 13.1 from the book, which says if x_1 ≡ x_2 (mod m) and y_1 ≡ y_2 (mod m), then x_1 + y_1 ≡ x_2 + y_2 (mod m).
He says because of this theorem, in our problem x + x' ≡ y + y' (mod m); and consequently [x + x']_m = [y + y']_m as required.
However, is this right? I thought we were trying to prove that [x]_m ⊕ [y]_m and [x']_m ⊕ [y']_m denote the same class, which I think would require us to prove that [x + y]_m = [x' + y']_m, and not that [x + x']_m = [y + y']_m, wouldn't it?
Also, I think the book's theorem 13.1 would show that x + y ≡ x' + y' (mod m), wouldn't it, and not x + x' ≡ y + y' (mod m)? And I think that this would prove that that [x + y]_m = [x' + y']_m, which I think is what we want to prove?
So, is Biggs right, or am I right and are these all typos? Thanks!