Question:
Why does the infinite sum of a Poisson distribution add up to 1?
John C
2007-04-28 22:51:05 UTC
Why does the infinite sum of a Poisson distribution add up to 1?
Three answers:
Pascal
2007-04-28 23:08:50 UTC
The reason is simply that by definition, e^x = [k=0, ∞]∑(x^k/k!). So for the Poisson distribution:



[k=0, ∞]∑(e^(-λ)λ^k/k!) = e^(-λ) [k=0, ∞]∑(λ^k/k!) = e^(-λ)e^λ = 1



That's really all there is to it.
Brody
2007-04-28 22:57:12 UTC
The probability density

function of the Poisson distribution is given by:



[L^x]*[e^(-L)]

p(X = x) = ----------------

x!



Where I have used capital L to represent the parameter of the

distribution. Traditionally, the Greek letter Lambda is used for this

parameter. I will keep calling it L from now on, though.



Finding E(x) = mean of the Poisson is actually fairly simple. We go

back to the definition of E(x) to see that we need to find the

following infinite sum.



inf

---

\ [L^x]*[e^(-L)]

E(X) = / x * ----------------

--- x!

x=0



We will apply a standard procedure for summing up this series or a

very often-used trick, if you like. (My professors like to say that "a

twice-used trick is a procedure.") We will factor out whatever we can

from under the sigma sign, trying to arrive at something like



(Some Expression) * Infinite Sum of p(x)



And since we already know that p(x) is the density function of the

Poisson, we know that it must sum up to 1. You will see the above

procedure being applied again and again whenever you find expected

values.



Let's do it. First we notice that when x = 0, the entire first term

vanishes, so we can rewrite the expression as:



inf

---

\ [L^x]*[e^(-L)]

E(X) = / ----------------

--- (x-1)!

x=1



Where I have made the additional simplification of cancelling the first

term in the factorial with the x we had in the numerator. Now, the

above looks *almost* the same as p(x), except that we have (x - 1)!

instead of x!. No problem. Let us make a change-of-variable and choose

y = x - 1. We'll see how everything turns out after we do that.



inf if y = x - 1, then x = y + 1

--- |

\ [L^(y + 1)]*[e^(-L)]

E(X) = / -----------------------

--- y!

y=0

|

When x = 1, y = 0



Almost there - except that now we have an extra L that multiplies

every term in the series. So, all we have to do is factor it out.



inf

---

\ [L (y)]*[e^(-L)]

E(X) = L* / ------------------

--- y!

y=0



And there you have it. The resulting summation is nothing more than

adding up all the values of the density function of the Poisson, and

we know that by the definition of the density function, it must all

add up to 1. This gives us the final very neat result:



E(X) = L



The variance is found by very similar means, except that this time we

employ another interesting little procedure (I would call it a trick,

but since it is also used for finding the variance of a Binomial

distribution, it's a procedure). Recall that



Var(X) = E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2



Since we already know E(X), all we have to do is now find E(X^2) in

order to obtain the variance. Unfortunately, this is a very difficult

task, so we instead do something else.



Notice that E[X(X-1)] = E(X^2 - X) = E(X^2) - E(X). This alternate

expression is easier to add up, because of that factorial in the

denominator of the Poisson density. Finding it will give you an

expression containing E(X^2) which can then be used for finding the

variance. In other symbols,



E[X(X - 1] + E(X) - [E(X)]^2 = E(X^2) - E(X) + E(X) - [E(X)]^2

= E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2

= Var(X)



So the only ingredient missing is E(X(X - 1)). This I'll let you find

yourself. You need to add up the following infinite sum:



inf

---

\ [L^x]*[e^(-L)]

E[X(X - 1)] = / x(x - 1) * ---------------

--- x!

x=0



Do it the same way I did it for the E(X). Play around with the

expressions, do a substitution, and try to arrive at an expression of

the form of (Something)*[Sum of p(x)]. I hope this gives you no major

difficulties, once you have fully understood how to do it for E(X).



I can think of an entirely different standard method for finding the

mean and variance of the Poisson distribution. It involves a

theoretical device called moment generating functions, abbreviated

mgf's. Since this method is very straightforward, provided that we

have already derived the mgf of the Poisson, I'll explain it too.



The mgf of ANY distribution is given by the formula:



mgf(t) = E[e^(tX)]



where E( ) denotes the expected value function related to that

distribution and x is a random variable. In particular, the mgf of the

Poisson can be found by evaluating the above expected value (which

involves a lot of fun and summing up again an infinite series). In the

end, one can arrive at the following formula:



mgf(t) = exp[(e^t - 1)L]



where exp[ ] is another way of writing e^( ) and L is again the

parameter related to the Poisson distribution, same L as before.



Now, the beauty of the mgf is that it greatly simplifies calculations

for obtaining means and variances. It is called _moment_ generating

function, because in a sense, it packs of all the moments of the

distribution into one neat expression. Moments of a random variable

are E(X), E(X^2), E(X^3), etc. Notice how the mean is the first

moment, E(X), and the variance is the second moment minus the first

moment squared, i.e.



Var(X) = E(X^2) - [E(X)]^2



There is a standard result that says that if we find the kth

derivative of the mgf and evaluate it at t = 0, we will obtain the kth

moment. This theorem can be obtained by expressing the mgf as an

infinite sum (use the definition), then differentiating term-by-term,

and finally evaluating at t = 0. Using this little theorem and the mgf

of the Poisson we find that:



d mgf(t) | d exp[(e^t - 1)L] | |

-------- | = ----------------- | = exp[(e^t - 1)L]*Le^t | = L

dt |t=0 dt |t=0 |t=0



It is reassuring to see that this agrees with our previous result.



Now we need to find the second derivative in order to get the second

moment. We can then use the second moment to find the variance.



d^2 mgf(t) | d exp[(e^t - 1)L]*Le^t |

------------ | = ------------------------ |

dt^2 |t=0 dt |t=0



|

= exp[(e^t - 1)L] * (Le^t)^2 + exp[(e^t - 1)L] * Le^t |

|t=0



= L^2 + L



And just for an added touch of suspense, I'll let you figure out from

here what the variance of a Poisson random variable is.
a_liberal_economist
2007-04-28 22:53:58 UTC
Because otherwise it wouldn't be a distribution.


This content was originally posted on Y! Answers, a Q&A website that shut down in 2021.
Loading...