This appears to be a non-trivial theorem.
It is a direct result of the Jordan Canonical Form (for those familiar with that result). Write the Jordan Canonical Form for T and examine matrices for the differences (T-aI) and (T-bI) along with the product (T-aI)(T-bI). Nullity(T-aI) and Nullity(T-bI) are the dimensions of the eigenspaces for eigenvalues "a" and "b" of T, that is the number of zero columns in those difference matrices. Nullity((T-aI)(T-bI)) is the number of zero columns in the product matrix, which is easily seen to correspond to the zero columns in the Jordan Canonical matrices for (T-aI) and (T-bI). {Note that this result relies on the fact that "a" and "b" are distinct, so that (T-aI) and (T-bI) have their zero columns in different blocks.}
A more elementary proof can be constructed by carefully examining the kernels(as suggested by D g).
Suppose 0 = (T-a)(T-b)(x). {That is, x is in the kernel of (T-a)(T-b).}
Hint1: Consider y = (T-b)(x)/(a-b)
(Why is it important that a and b are distinct?)
Can you show that y is in the kernel some operator, NOT (T-b)?
Hint 2: Also Consider z = x - y.
Can you show that z is in some kernel?
(Can you see why that factor of (a-b) was put in the above?)
If you can decompose every element of the kernel of (T-a)(T-b)
uniquely as a sum of elements from the kernels of (T-a) and (T-b),
AND that every such sum IS in the kernel of (T-a)(T-b) - the easy part -
then the kernel of (T-a)(T-b) is a direct sum of those other two kernels
and its dimension is the sum of their dimensions (nullities).
Can you show that uniqueness? What would happen if a vector
was in both the kernel of (T-a) and the kernel of (T-b)?
This might be a challenge assignment for some linear algebra course, so I hope I haven't spoilt it!