well thats simple....use parametric differentiation,i.e, in d first question let the tan inverse term be y and the sin inverse term be z. You need to find dy/dz which is also equal to (dy/dz)(dx/dx) = (dy/dx)/(dz/dx)
So differentiate y and z wrt x (the common variable) and divide the derivative of y with the derivative of z...the 2nd part can be attempted similarly. Hope it helps!!
?
2009-06-18 13:46:52 UTC
just do the chain rule: Vdu + udv
or quotient (vdu-udv)/v^2
should be easyy
and if there's no need to simplyfy it'll be easy just times out the brack then difereniate them then times it with the tan -1 then plus the other way etc
ooh seen i thought it was tan to the power of minus one instead of inverse, mate if you can't do it check your books why should i just tell you the answer?
qwert
2009-06-18 14:22:35 UTC
if the functions are u and v
find du/dx , dv/dx, then take their ratio
you could use trigonometric substitution to simplify and then differentiate
use the following link for explanation of the second problem
http://rbmix.com/problem/math/fc/fc.html
2009-06-18 14:06:44 UTC
plz apply chain rule.
?
2009-06-18 13:45:26 UTC
get a tutor
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